Trojan horses for Fascism.

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Arakasi Takeda
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Post by Arakasi Takeda »

Arakasi Takeda wrote:
Arguing that you should _never_ have to submit to the laws of a State is nothing by Anarchism.
I believe I wrote all my posts in english. Please correct me if that is not so. Neither me nor Tolthar has argued that.

But you have. If a state is a contract, one must be able to abstain from the contract. But one is not able to. Hence a state is not a contract. You refuted yourself, not my view with this post.
Again, you are flat wrong. I have specifically stated that one may abstain from the contract of the state, by chosing to no longer be a citizen of that state.

YOU are the one making the claim that being a citizen of the State is not voluntary. But you have offered zero support to that statement. Tolthar is close to offering support, in one very conditional case, but he yet to cite a specific source on the status of minors in regards to Objectivist philosophy.

And, so far, Tolthar has stated that he has no responsibility to obey laws which 'he did not agree to'. From the standpoint of human rights, he is essentially correct. But that is built on the premise that he has not, in fact, made a voluntary agreement to be part of the State. And again, that logical fact is built on his 'minor' argument -- the accident of his birth is not a voluntary choice. But he still hasn't conclusively proven that case, and, besides, it is only a good case where the individual in question is a minor. Neither he nor you have answered why an adult faces and involuntary choice about his or her citizenship.

Why do you believe an _adult_ has no choice, when it is plainly obvious that they do?

I have neither refuted my own post in presenting this argument (since I have claimed the exact opposite of what you trying to attribute to me), nor have I even claimed to refute your view, because you haven't actually presented a logical argument. All you have done is made unsupported blanket statements, and tried to attribute false premises to me. I'm still waiting for you to say something testable.


AT[/quote]
Arakasi Takeda
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Former Director of Corporate Intelligence
Taggart Transdimensional Inc.
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"Beyond the senses is the mind, and beyond the mind is Reason, its essence."

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Petter Sandstad
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Post by Petter Sandstad »

Arakasi Takeda wrote:You are carrying your prejudices too far again, assuming that I am a complete advocate of Rousseau's definition of a social contract - I am, in fact, utilitzing the word 'contract' in its Objectivist definition:
No you aren't using the objectivist usage of contract, and you are consciously evading my proof for this. You are in support of a social contract, something that you have in common with those philosophers that I mentioned. There are no fundamental difference between your social contract and that of for instance Roussseau. And please read the quote before you quote it here. She is speaking about "rights", not a constitution.
Arakasi Takeda wrote: You also need to remember that the Founding Fathers, in composing the Constitution, specifically site John Locke and Jean-Jacques Rosseau in their reasonig for certain provisions of that same document. If you hold that all of Rosseau's philosophy is necessarily evil, then you are directly stating that the US Constitution is built, at least partially, on immoral grounds. You cannot simultaneously argue that the Consitution is both a morally good and morally evil document.
The constitution was not built on Rousseau, but Locke. The french revolution however was. Hence the major differences in effects. In fact the danger of Rousseau was identified by the founding fathers, for instance by John Adams. However, the constitution had some minor faults. And thus already at the time of their sons they had lost most of the understanding of Constitution and its foundation. However, I don't think these faults can be said to be moral evils, but rather errors. Rousseau however was evil, and is best represented by his true heir -- Robespierre.
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Arakasi Takeda
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Post by Arakasi Takeda »

Arakasi Takeda wrote:
I disagree that the issue of evasion is 'very general'; the speech calls out Stadler specifically:
Are you arguing like this because you aren't paying attention, or are you doing it subconsciously et cetera? Everything in that passage can be inserted where you have inserted "evasion". That passage takes up many things. It mention evasion at the beginning, but there are many forms of evasion. Stadlers specific error (or evasion) is the practical-theoretical dichotomy, which the majority of that passage is spent on. [/quote]

Let's bring this discussion of Stadler to a close with a question directly from me to you - Why are we still arguing?
Everything in that passage can be inserted where you have inserted "evasion".
The above is a direct quote from you. Let me use it as a logical premise for my arguement.

1) Everything in that passage can be inserted where you have inserted 'evasion'
2) That passage is directed at Stadler specifically.
3) Stadler is a symbol of 'evasion' in the book.

It's not an exact syllogism, but I think it is simple enough to follow. All I have been saying, from the beginning, is that Stadler is a symbol of evasion, in the book. You started out arguing that he was not - that, instead, he was a symbol of the tyranny of force over reason. Between then and now, I have presented a few examples of why your particular interpretation might be questionable, but I did not disagree with you ultimately. I said so specifically, in reference the passage about his endorsing project Xylophone. You have continued to argue with me, despite my admitting to your perfectly logical conclusion, and the end result of your arguing is the passage I quoted in full above - that Stadler is guilty of evasion. You now seem to be trying to bat at me about his specific type of evasion, when I only presented the general case.

As far as I can tell, you are just arguing with me to argue with me. We have both come to certain conclusions about Stadler's representation in the book. In both cases, I think we have argued logically _and_ consistently. If there is no logical _inconsistency_ between our two positions, why are we arguing? I am not arguing a case in opposition to you. Mine would just be a general case of yours. This whole discussion was in relation to a comment to Tolthar I made as to why I am sometimes taken with _sympathy_ towards the character's state - I understand what it means to be frustrated at irrationality.

I know why I am still responding to this - because I feel the need to answer questions you pose to me, and defend myself from 'low blow' comments like the one you made at the beginning -
Are you arguing like this because you aren't paying attention, or are you doing it subconsciously et cetera?
What is your motive? Why are you arguing?
How conscious a choice it is is inconsequential
http://www.aynrandlexicon.com/lexicon/freewill.html
When man unfocuses his mind, he may be said to be conscious in a subhuman sense of the word, since he experiences sensations and perceptions. But in the sense of the word applicable to man—in the sense of a consciousness which is aware of reality and able to deal with it, a consciousness able to direct the actions and provide for the survival of a human being—an unfocused mind is not conscious.
I believe 'how conscious a choice' is not only not inconsequential, but is, in fact, the most important part of the context here. I quote the free will section of the lexicon to try to explain why.

An unfocused (unconscious) mind cannot be said to possess free will. How conscious a mind is determines its ability to make choices. Now, this appears slightly circular, since reason is a volitional choice - a person could chose not to be reasoned, and, instead, be unconscious, in which case they are not free to make choices - which, I assume, means they can't then chose to be reasonable?

But ignoring that bit of a logic puzzle - how conscious Stadler 'is' is important to understanding his reactions over time. One assumes, in the past, that Stadler consciously chose to practice reason in both his theory and personal life. He could never have been a respected mentor of Galt, if this were not the case. Something happened that caused him to change his mind. I don't think he deliberately chose to segregate his reason into theory and not personal, but, instead, simply 'unfocused his mind', in regards to his personal life. He became unconscious in personal situations, while trying to remain 'conscious' in theory work.

You correctly point out (and Galt spends that portion of the speech) stating that such a situation is not sustainable. That the segregation cannot exist, because it is a logical contradiction. But I do not think Stadler is really _aware_ of the contradiction, in any meaningful sense. He has no capacity to 'step outside himself' and review his own situation coherently. He cannot say to himself 'I am acting in a contradictory manner'. How volitional is his evasion, at this late point in the story? IMHO, you cannot argue he still has a choice, if his consciousness has completely failed (in the way Rand addresses in regards to man, in the quote above).

I think there is a fundamental distinction to be made between a person who would be aware of their contradiction, and one who is not. Awareness implies the ability to chose, to 'check the premises', and correct the contradiction. Stadler seems to have lost the ability to do so, and, thus, lost the choice. His actions have become involuntary.

At least, that's my take on the subject. Whether or not I have come to the proper conclusion, in Rand's opinion, is not really something I can ask her. You apparently have come to the conclusion that I am wrong. So be it.

AT
Arakasi Takeda
Former Chief Financial Officer
Former Director of Corporate Intelligence
Taggart Transdimensional Inc.
**************************************
"Beyond the senses is the mind, and beyond the mind is Reason, its essence."

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Tolthar Lockbar
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Post by Tolthar Lockbar »

Let us discuss the matter starting from the same basis. Let us use first the theoretical case:

1) Do you believe there is such a thing as a 'proper government'?
2) If Yes, how do you define 'proper government'?
3) If a 'proper government' exists, does it have legislative power?
4) If Yes, what responsibilities, if any, do you have, as a citizen, to obey the laws created?
5) Does the existence of a 'proper government', creating laws that citizens have a responsibility to obey (if your answer is they _should_ obey them, in question #4), constitute a 'contract' (i.e. an equal exchange of value for value)?
6) If the answer to #5 is NO, then what relationship does exists between a government and its citizens?
7) Assuming your answers have brought you to this point - Why would citizens constitute a 'proper government', give it legislative power, and then _not_ obey those laws?

Again, these 7 questions are all in reference to the theoretical case. We can address your answers to a real world example after we are clear on our differences in theory.
Good idea:

First of all, when I speak of morality here, I am speaking about the morality of two or more people. In other words, nothing about personal decisions that only involves oneself.

1) Yes
2) I said it in a prev post, if you have further questions, let me know. Basically a government that follows morality.
3) Yes
4) Follow the natural morality of man
5) What does being a citizen entail? I don't think the concept of citizen is needed.
6) A person must follow morality inside the government's borders. If they leave, the government should enforce morality for those outside unless they did something wrong, and also only if the government can. Because of this, I think one should be able to make a contract with the government to have their rights protected outside the state, but its only necessary in that context. And the representatives of the government should be able to say 'no'.
7) The point is to make a law be nothing more than a creation of morality in the context of two individuals interacting. Then one should follow morality, not law.

I also don't think a contract is an exchange of value for value. That is the outcome of most contracts though. A contract is just something that two or more individuals voluntarily agree to.

I don't think the distinction of a citizen needs to be made. I believe open immigration is moral. If someone is in the reach of government enforcement, then they must follow morality or suffer consequences.

EDIT: Spelling
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Arakasi Takeda
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Post by Arakasi Takeda »

Points explored in reverse order
The constitution was not built on Rousseau, but Locke. The french revolution however was. Hence the major differences in effects. In fact the danger of Rousseau was identified by the founding fathers, for instance by John Adams. However, the constitution had some minor faults. And thus already at the time of their sons they had lost most of the understanding of Constitution and its foundation. However, I don't think these faults can be said to be moral evils, but rather errors. Rousseau however was evil, and is best represented by his true heir -- Robespierre.
John Adams, the future author of the Sedition Act - that is your champion of human rights?

Thomas Jefferson - the primary advocate of the Bill of Rights - did, in fact, support a great deal of Rousseau's work. To say that the Constitution is not at least partially based on Rousseau's work is not to have studied the life and influences of one of its primary authors.
No you aren't using the objectivist usage of contract, and you are consciously evading my proof for this.
And that, ladies and gentlemen, is the end of any civil conversation I can have with Petter. When you come to the last, inevitable refuge of the true Objectivist ideologue "all my opponents are guilty of evasion", no further logical discussion is warranted or possible. Because now, as far as Petter is concerned, I have become the unthinking savage, and can say nothing to persuade him that I possess the faculty of reason at all.

Let us agree then, going forward, not to address any comments at each other, or respond any further to comments from each other. You needn't bother responding to this one even - I would not deign to infringe upon your choice to do so or not, you magnificent rational superman....

I will instead scurry back to my cave, dress myself in skins, and go scavenge what I can from the scraps of producers like yourself.


AT[/quote]
Arakasi Takeda
Former Chief Financial Officer
Former Director of Corporate Intelligence
Taggart Transdimensional Inc.
**************************************
"Beyond the senses is the mind, and beyond the mind is Reason, its essence."

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Petter Sandstad
Taggart Director
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Post by Petter Sandstad »

Arakasi Takeda wrote:John Adams, the future author of the Sedition Act - that is your champion of human rights?

Thomas Jefferson - the primary advocate of the Bill of Rights - did, in fact, support a great deal of Rousseau's work. To say that the Constitution is not at least partially based on Rousseau's work is not to have studied the life and influences of one of its primary authors.
Yes, I consider Adams to be better than Jefferson, though he was not perfect either. And Jefferson did not refer, praise, etc. Rousseau in any special way. And with the explicit attacks on Rousseau by Adams, it is more than weighed up for. It is however much clearer that Locke and Montesquieu had great influence on them both.

As for the rest of your post, I certainly don't have any interest in feeding everything in with a tea-spoon. So on everything else you now have the last word.
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Arakasi Takeda
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Post by Arakasi Takeda »

Tolthar:
Good idea:
I think it was a good idea, but, unfortunately, in light of certain recent events, I will be unable to continue the discussion.

Thanks,
AT
[/quote]
Arakasi Takeda
Former Chief Financial Officer
Former Director of Corporate Intelligence
Taggart Transdimensional Inc.
**************************************
"Beyond the senses is the mind, and beyond the mind is Reason, its essence."

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Tolthar Lockbar
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Post by Tolthar Lockbar »

Petter Sandstad wrote:As for the rest of your post, I certainly don't have any interest in feeding everything in with a tea-spoon.
Yes. I think it is a important distinction between science and debate. A good science article requires an outlining of all premises and proving ones point.

Debate is not science (though it uses it). I don't think one should be required to make an entire essay on their point. It takes work from both sides, and if they aren't interested to spend some time researching for themselves, then it isn't worth it to them. Its alot more pointing than spoon feeding.
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Tolthar Lockbar
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Post by Tolthar Lockbar »

you are consciously evading my proof for this.
This does not define a savage.
I have become the unthinking savage, and can say nothing to persuade him that I possess the faculty of reason at all.
...
I would not deign to infringe upon your choice to do so or not
...
and go scavenge what I can from the scraps of producers like yourself.
This outlines much better what a savage is, which is not what Petter said.
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